Note where the first scribe of Beowulf ends and the second scribe of Beowulf begins. It is during a description of a Legendary woman, who's great lord, if you looked at her, 'the patterned blade must settle it,|one scribe finishes, the other scribe begins| make known its death-evil.' Then the second scribe's first statement becomes: 'Such is no queenly custom for a woman to practice, though she is peerless--that one who weaves peace should take away the life of a beloved man after pretended injury.' Could the second scribe have been King Arthur's Queen Cynwise?? The first scribe would then be King Arthur himself. Would he have wanted to insult the militaristic Anglo-Saxons with their militaristic Roman Catholic Church and preach to them about ethic and morality in their own tongue?? Was this the only option left to the magical Merlin or Myrddin and King Arthur under the assault of the Catholic Church??
Could this have been Arthur and Cynwise preaching to the invaders in Old English??
There are two things which I would like to point out about Beowulf. First, Beowulf's father is named by the first scribe Hygelac which means in Old English Mind-Lack. What righteous Nordic Monk would write that about his own hero and hero's father?? A monk?? A non-Nordic person??
Also the first scribe mentions a counselor to the king named Unferth which means Non-Spirit in Old English. Would an Old English speaking monk write this about his own people or would a Christian Welshman, well-versed in Old English?? Did King Arthur personally hear this legend told to him by his Step-Grandfather-in-Law Hengst?? Arthur's father, Vortigern, is said to have married Hengest, the Dane's daughter at least for a time. Could Arthur have heard these legends and decided to write a version of them suitable to the Welsh Christian enemy of the Danes and Old English speaking peoples?? Highly likely.
The second scribe gets the part about Beowulf and the Dragon to write about, writes with a lighter vocabulary. The theoretical she-scribe ends with this Old English Verse: 'They said that he was of world-kings the mildest of men and the gentlest, kindest to his people, and most eager for fame.' Gentlest?? A very feminine series of words!!
The first scribe first introduces Beowulf with this: 'We are men of the Geatish nation and Hygelac's hearth-companions.' Does this make sense for even a monk to say about his own people?? No, not at all.
I could go on, but I also want to point out to you other Anglo-Saxon Verse which I believe was written by Arthur and Cynwise after Cadwallon or Arthur turned himself over to the Roman Catholic Pope and went to Rome to die {or be killed}. In The Wife's Lament, she tells of her relatives whom she doesn't like telling her to wait by a cave for her husband's return. Merlin's or Myrddin's cave?? Are we expecting a magic return here?? Her husband has been banished as a criminal. Arthur or Cadwallon?? Banished to die in Rome??
In The Husband's Message, the husband is telling his wife to 'Follow the sun's path across the sea to find joy with the man who is waiting for you.' and/or 'Follow the sun's path across the sea and ours will be joy and the happiness and prosperity of the bright day.' Is this Arthur's trip to Rome?? Would Arthur have been multi-lingual?? Merlin, Myrddin's, or Thlwarch Hen's Bardic Song's are recorded in a type of Old English or Latin script. The husband sounds like a king telling his kinfolk he has left behind to continue to distribute rings to 'comrades and retainers.' King Arthur saying goodbye to his warriors??
Would he set an example for the Anglo-Saxons by writing some of their first verse in a personal way for him relative to his own banishment to Rome?? Very possible. It would all depend on how resourceful King Arthur was relative to his enemies and how Christian a man he was to 'love his enemies' as himself!!!